A 63-year-old black female was referred by her primary-care physician for a red left eye of one days duration.
Her ocular history was noncontributory. Her systemic history was remarkable for rheumatoid arthritis.
Best-corrected visual acuity was 20/25 O.U. at distance and near. External examination was normal, and there was no evidence of afferent pupillary defect.
The pertinent biomicroscopy findings are illustrated in the photograph. Cell and flare were present in the anterior chamber. Intraocular pressure measured 15mm Hg in both eyes. Dilated fundus exam was normal O.U.
The patient presented with this appearance O.S.
How would you approach this case? Does this patient require any additional tests? What is your diagnosis? How would you manage this patient? Whats the likely prognosis?
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